Difference between revisions of "Rules talk:Miscellany"
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I still dislike the PL multiplier gain adjustment rule, heh. [[User:Tiryst|Tiryst]] 01:50, 21 September 2006 (CDT) | I still dislike the PL multiplier gain adjustment rule, heh. [[User:Tiryst|Tiryst]] 01:50, 21 September 2006 (CDT) | ||
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| + | == Transformation rule == | ||
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| + | I understand the need for the rule and respect it completely. Quoting Dev - "If that rule wasn't in place, it'd allow someone to power-game by using transformations to take on people way out of their PL range. It's in place to prevent that." However I would like to see some clairity in the rule. It was stated to me that the deduction needs only take place if the opponent C is incapeable of a transformation themselves. Hence if they can and just don't choose to transform and beat the everloving snot outta the first offender, that's their perogitive. Either way my major question is the clarity of "if an Opponent is capable of a transformation, does the deduction still apply, Tranformation used or not?" Or "If both C's actually transform, does that level the playing field and hence negate the deduction that way?" Please get back with me if I managed to confuse anyone. | ||
Revision as of 23:33, 24 September 2006
I still dislike the PL multiplier gain adjustment rule, heh. Tiryst 01:50, 21 September 2006 (CDT)
Transformation rule
I understand the need for the rule and respect it completely. Quoting Dev - "If that rule wasn't in place, it'd allow someone to power-game by using transformations to take on people way out of their PL range. It's in place to prevent that." However I would like to see some clairity in the rule. It was stated to me that the deduction needs only take place if the opponent C is incapeable of a transformation themselves. Hence if they can and just don't choose to transform and beat the everloving snot outta the first offender, that's their perogitive. Either way my major question is the clarity of "if an Opponent is capable of a transformation, does the deduction still apply, Tranformation used or not?" Or "If both C's actually transform, does that level the playing field and hence negate the deduction that way?" Please get back with me if I managed to confuse anyone.
